PAR 100 Volume 3 Quiz – Question and Answers

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PAR 100 Volume 3 Chapter 1 Quiz

  1. Your patient is a 68 year old male complaining of diff. breathing for 2 days.  He is sitting up, conscious, alert, and oriented and appears to be in mild resp. distress.  Phys. Exam reveals cool, dry, pink skin, he is thin with well defined accessory muscles, and you note diffuse wheezing in all lung fields.  The patient gives a 20 pack a year smoking history.  Based on the exam what is it?
  2. Which of the following statements about pulse Ox is false?
  3. The functional unit of the respiratory tree is?
  4. The mechanical process by which air is moved in and out of the lungs is?
  5. The amount of air moved in and out of the lungs during a normal, quiet respiration is?
  6. Which of the following is not an intrinsic risk factor associated with respiratory disease?
  7. The most superior portion of the pharynx is the?
  8. The structure that occludes the trachea to prevent aspiration during swallowing is the?
  9. Lung perfusion depends on all of he following except:
  10. Diffusion is defined as:
  11. Your patient is a 24 year old male experiencing an acute onset of SOB.  Expiratory wheezes are auscultated in all lung fields.  Your primary goal in managing this patient is to?
  12. Your patient is a 72 year old female, alert and oriented, sitting up in bed at a nursing home.  She is in mild resp. distress.  Staff describes a 4 day history of fever, malaise, and productive cough.  The patient also states that she has been experiencing chills and chest pain with deep inspiration.  Physical exam. Reveals rhales and rhonchi in the right upper lobes and warm, moist skin.  Based on the clinical exam findings, the most appropriate diagnosis would be?
  13. Which of the following best defines perfusion?
  14. All of the following are acceptable methods of clearing a FBAO in an unconscious supine adult except:
  15. A hyperresponsive airway is likely to be in all the following conditions except:
  16. Improving ______ is a primary treatment goal in a pt with bronchospasm.
  17. Which of the following would result in an increased respiratory rate?
  18. Normal inspiration involuves all the following except
  19. The carpopedal spasm that occur due to the hyperventilation syndrome are a result of realitive _______, secondary to _________.
  20. Which of the following statements comparing asthma and emphysema is TRUE:
  21. Management of a pt who is hyperventilating should include:
  22. An example of diffusion in the respiratory system is
  23. Which of the following statements about capnography is false
  24. A 61 yr old male with a 24 pack a year history of cigarette smoking presents with pursed lips, SOB.  You note that he is thin and has florid skin and a barrel chest.  Auscultation of his lungs reveals diffuse expiratory wheezing in all fields.  Based on this clinical condition, what additional complication is most likely to develop.
  25. Your pt is a 16 yr old male who attempted suicide.  He is unconscious and apneic, lying supine on his garage floor.  The pt was found in the front seat of a running car.  HR 70, BP 100/60, RR 0, in addition to IV with NS, which of the following is most approp
  26. Which of the following is the purpose of surfactant in the lungs
  27. Your pt is a 68 yr old male complaining of difficulty breathing for 2 days.  He is sitting up alert, and orientated and appears to be in mild respiratory distress.  Skins are cool, dry, and pink and he appears thin with well defined accessory muscle use.  You hear wheezing in all lung fields.  HR 102, BP 136/96, RR 20, SaO2 92%.  The pt gives a 20 pack a year history of smoking.  Based on these findings, which of the following is most likely.
  28. During inspiration the air pressure in the chest cavity is _____ than atmospheric pressure.
  29. Which of the following is not a role of the upper respiratory system
  30. Your pt is a 23 yr old male in severe respiratory distress.  The pt was working in a small enclosed space when he split a 5 gallon drum of ammonia onto the floor and was quickly overcame by fumes.  A coworker has pulled him from the room to safety and assured no ammonia has spilled onto his clothing.  The pt is complaining of burning sensation to his throat and lungs, and you note his voice is becoming progressively more horse.  Lung sounds revel crackling and wheezing in all lung fields.  HR 144, BP 150/100, RR 30, SaO2 90%.  In addition to IV with NS at TKO rate, which of the following is the best course of action
  31. Your pt is a 34 yr old male complaining of SOB.  He gives a 3 day history of runny nose, sore throat, and nonproductive cough.  His SOB began after a long bout of hard coughing.  His skin is cool, dry, and slightly pale.  Lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally.  HR 102, BP 136/90, SaO2 95%.  Which of the following is the best course of action?
  32. The _______ plura lines the thoracic cavity and contains nerve fibers
  33. An increased hydrogen ion concentration in the cerebrospinal fluid results in a(n) _______ respiratory rate
  34. Normal exhalation requires all the following except:
  35. Impulses from the ______ nerve(s), which originate in the ________, stimulate the diaphragm to contract
  36. An increase in arterial PCO2 results in a(n)_______ in cerebrospinal fluid pH and a(n)_________ in ventilation
  37. You have intubated a 66yr old female pt who was experiencing an acute exacerbation of her emphysema.  What special consideration does this pt, with her specific pathology require
  38. Which of the following is the most important determination of ventiatory rate
  39. Which of the following correctly lists the divisions of the bronchial tree in descending order:
  40. ______ risk factors are those that are influenced by or are from within the patient.
  41. The anatomical difference between the two mainstem bronchi helps to explain why:
  42. The alveoli are moistened and kept open because of the presence of an important chemical called _______ that is secreted by type II cells found on the alveolar surface.
  43. Nerve impulses from the ________ nerve, which begins in the region of the cervical portion of the spinal cord and travels through the chest cavity, stimulate the diaphragm to contract.
  44. The total volume of air in the lungs, called the _______ measures approximately 6K in an adult male.
  45. The most important determinant of the ventilatory rate is the arterial _____
  46. The oxygen dissociation curve can be altered by changes in the:
  47. Cellular respiration occurs in the peripheral:
  48. ________ is (are) characterized by long, deep breaths that are stopped during the inspiratory phase and separated by periods of apnea; this pattern is a result of stroke or sever central nervous system disease.
  49. Common medications used by patients with COPD include all of the following except:
  50. A whistling sound due to narrowing of the airways by edema, bronchoconstriction, or foreign materials describes:
  51. The preferred abbreviation to describe oxygen saturation measurement is ________.
  52. _________ is a graphic recording or display of the capnometry reading over time.
  53. _______ describes an excess of red blood cells resulting in an abnormally high hematocrit.
  54. The paramedic should measure _________ to determine the severity of an asthma attack and the degree of response to treatment
  55. Your pt is a 30 year old male who has been in pt in a rehabilitation hospital following surgical reduction of a fractured pelvis.  Staff reports sudden development of hypotension and severe respiratory distress about thirty minutes ago.  There is no other significant history.  Physical exam findings include cold, diaphoretic skin with peripheral cyanosis; jugular venous distention; clear breath sounds bilaterally; and vitals as follows: HR 134, BP 74/50, RR 28, SaO2 84%.  Which of the following is most likey?
  56. Your pt is a tall, thin, 34 yr old male complaining of shortness of breath.  He gives a three day history of runny nose, sore throat, and a nonproductive cough.  His shortness of breath began after a long bout of hard coughing.  His skin is cool, dry, and slightly pale.  Lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally.  HR 102, BP 136/90, RR 16, SaO2 = 95.  Which of the following is the most appropriate course of actio

Volume 3 Chapter 2a Test

  1. The presence of inverted T waves on an ECG indicates:
  2. Pharmacological interventions initiated by prehospital care providers in the treatment of CHF include all of the following except:
  3. Which of the following best characterizes successful defibrillation?
  4. An elevation of the ST segment is associated with:
  5. Management for a patient experiencing angina may include all of the following except:
  6. Which of the following is not a likely immediate cause of acute myocardial infarction
  7. Which of the following ECG findings may occur with unstable angina
  8. The most common cause of death resulting from MI is:
  9. Your patient is a 38 year old male who was involved in a motor vehicle accident in which he sustained blunt force trauma to his chest.  Physical exam reveals JVD, difficulty breathing, equal lung sounds bilaterally, and a narrowing pulse pressure.  Which of the following is most likely:
  10. A 42 yo female is alert and oriented, complaining of chest pain.  Which of the following questions would be the least productive with regard to performing a focused history:
  11. Which of the following is most characteristic of right heart failure:
  12. The heart sound produced by closure of the AV valve is:
  13. Which of the following is not indicated for a 44 year old male who is supine on the floor, pulseless, and apneic after experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath:
  14. A 63 year old male is alert and oriented, complaining of dizziness.  He describes an acute onset of dizziness and near syncope that has lasted for 15 minutes.  He is also experiencing substernal chest pain radiating to his jaw, as well as nausea, and weakness.  Physical exam reveals cool, diaphoretic skin, delayed cap refill and mild rales to the bases bilaterally.  He has no significant med. History, but he takes 325 mg of aspirin a day.  Hr=220, BP=88/52, RR=16, SaO2=95%.  The patient is receiving O2 by NRB.  Which of the following should be done first:
  15. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with an AMI:
  16. ________  is a drop in systolic B/P of more than 10mmHg with inspiration.
  17. Paramedics use all of the following interventions to treat CHF Except:
  18. Your pt’s ECG shows a braid S wave in lead 1, and an R-S-R prime complex in lead V1.  this indicates a:
  19. The predominant effect of a drug with primarily alpha properties would result in which of the following:
  20. Cardioversion is used to treat all of the following rhythms except:
  21. Signs and symptoms of decreased tissue perfusion secondary to cardiogenic shock include all of the following except:
  22. A 67 year old male is unconscious, sitting in a chair, and has agonal respirations.  His wife states that he was up all night with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort but would not go to the hospital.  Physical exam reveals pink, frothy sputum in the airway; cold, diaphoretic skin; and rales audible without a steth.  HR=108, BP-=74/P, RR=4, SaO2=82%.  The monitor shows sinus tach.  Which of the following is the highest priority when treating this patient?
  23. The heart sound produced by the closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves is:
  24. A 48 year old male is sitting upright in bed in resp. distress.  He describes an acute onset of difficulty breathing and C/P during the night that has been worsening for the past 3 hours.  He also complains of nausea.  Pain is described as a substernal pressure radiating to his left shoulder.  Physical exam reveals cool, diaphoretic skin; and rales on auscultation bilaterally.  Med. History includes two prior MI.  Meds. Include Zestril and metaprolol.  HR=132, BP=140/100, RR=25, SaO2=92%.  Which of the following is not indicated:
  25. A 66 year old male is supine on the waiting room floor in a dentist office.  He is pulseless and apneic.  Bystanders state he seemed excessively anxious and then collapsed about 5 minutes ago.  The monitor shows asystole in the three leads.  Which of the following is the most appropriate first action:
  26. A 45 year old male is alert and oriented, complaining of chest pain.  He describes a 2 day history of worsening pain described as a burning sensation below his left breast that radiates across his chest.  He states that the pain seems to get better right after eating, but then worsens again.  Medical history includes MI, hypertension, and type two diabetes.  His meds include Inderal, Vasotech, glucotrol, and lopid.  Physical exam reveals cool, dry skin; clear lungs, and no JVD or peripheral edema.  HR=102, BP=132/86, RR=12, SaO2=98%.  The patient is on O2 by cannula at 4 lpm.  Which of the following should be done next?
  27. Which of the following is not a likely immediate cause of AMI?
  28. A decrease in preload results in a:
  29. Which of the following best differentiates cardioversion from defibrillation:
  30. A 48 yr old male complaining of chest pain that he describes as dull, located substernally, but radiating to his neck.  He rates the pain as six and complains of nausea and lightheadedness.  His skin is cool and diaphoretic.  HR=96, BP=124/82, RR=14, SaO2=97% The 12 lead is nondiagnostic,  In addition to O2, NS at TKO, and transport, which of the following would be most appropriate
  31. Your pt is a 54 yr old male who is unresponsive and cyanotic with aganol respirations.   A quick look down shows V-tach.  Which of the following is most important when determining the immediate treatment of this pt?
  32. Parasympathetic innervation of the heart occurs with the ______
  33. A 56 yr old male is alert and orientated and complaining of severe, tearing, pain in his abdomen that radiates to his back, as well as numbness in his legs.  He has a hx of hypertension, and type II diabetes.  His skins are cool and diaphoretic.  HR=110, BP=108/82, RR=20, SaO2=98%, which of the following does the pt need most right now
  34. Which of the following best describes the physiology of anastomosis:
  35. The appearance of a pathological Q wave on a ECG indicates the presence of ______ tissue.
  36. Measures to treat Cardiogenic shock include all of the following except:    
  37. Which of the following would you expect NOT to find while assessing a pt with cardiac tamponade
  38. The hearts normal electrical axis has a range of ____ to ____
  39. Two examples of a fibrinolytic are
  40. The muscle in a typical artery falls in between what layers

Volume 3 Chapter 2b

  1. The hearts electrical axis is 59 degrees.  In normal tracing which lead will have the most positive deflection?
  2. The thick middle tissue layer of the heart is the?
  3. An elevation of the ST segment is associated with?             
  4. The passage of the electrical current away from the positive will cause _______deflection on the recorder?
  5. Any time the axis equals or exceeds  +105 degrees the patient is said to have?
  6. Two electrodes of opposite polarity are utilized they are called?
  7. Leads 1, 2, 3 are?
  8. The very outmost layer of a typical artery is called the what
  9. Myocardial ischemia results in?
  10. This coronary artery provides oxygen to the cardiac cells at the SA node
  11. The precardial leads provide a view of the?
  12. Your pt has a hx of progressively worsening angina that comes on at rest.  This most indicates ______ angina
  13. The pressure in the left ventricle at the end of diastole is called
  14. The amount of resistance that must be overcome by the left ventricle during systole is called ______.
  15. Cardioversion is used to treat all the following rhythms except:
  16. Action potential begins in a myocardial cell when:
  17. The relative refractory period of the myocardium is represented by the ______.
  18. Signs and or symptoms of a dissecting aortic aneurysm include all of the following except:
  19. The lead to the left of the sternum at the forth intercostal space is the
  20. Your pt’s ECG shows a braid S wave in lead 1, and a R-S-R complex in lead V1, This indicates a:
  21. Which of the following ECG findings is LEAST anticipated in a pt experiencing an acute myocardial infarction?
  22. An infarction that affects only the deeper levels of the myocardium is a(n):
  23. Myocardial ischemia results in:
  24. Parasympathetic innervation of the heart occurs via the _______?
  25. Your pt is in a-fib, has a heart rate of 108 on the monitor, but her radial pulse is 8
  26. Increased _______ does NOT occur due to increased venus return to the heart
  27. The left coronary artery supplies blood to all these areas except:
  28. _______ is a first line antidysrhythmic used to treat and prevent life threatening ventricular dysrhythmias.
  29. ______ ______ states that the more the myocardial muscle is stretched, the greater its force of contraction will be
  30. The period of time when the myocardium is relaxed and cardiac filling and coronary perfusion occur is called:
  31. A positive dromotropic agent will
  32. A pt with stable atrial tachycardia would be given which drug
  33. Certain chemicals that are released by the heart when myocardial cells are damaged are called.

Volume 3 Chapter 2-C

  • The hearts electrical axis is 59 degrees. In normal trasing which lead will have the most positive deflection?
  • The thick middle tissue layer of the heart is the?
  • An elevation of the ST segment is associated with?
  • Passage of the electrical current away from the positive will cause deflection on the recorder?
  • The dysrhythmia characterized by each impulse arriving at the AV junction being progressively delayed until, eventually, AV conduction is completely blocked is called ______ AV block (Mobitz 1)
  • Any time the axis equals or exceeds +105 degrees the patient is said to have?
  • Two electrodes of opposite polarity are utilized they are called?
  • Leads 1, 2, 3 are?
  • Myocardial ischemia results in?
  • In lead 2, the negative electrode is placed on the?
  • Which of the following ECG findings is LEAST anticipated in a patient experiencing a MI?
  • Which of the following statements are false about axis deviation?
  • A 12-lead ECG that reveals slight ST segment elevation , Q wave in leads 2, 3, and aVF, and ST elevation in V1 and V2 most indicate which of the following?
  • The precordial leads provide a view of the?
  • Your patients ECG shows a broad S wave in lead 1 and a R-S prime complex in lead V1. This indicates?
  • True posteriors infarct s can be recognized by looking?
  • Purpose of the precordial leads is to evaluate the?
  • The presence of inverted T waves on an ECG indicates?
  • An infection that effects only the deeper levels of the myocardium is?
  • The precardial leads provide a look at the____ plane of the heart.
  • St segment elevation, T wave inversion and the development of significant Q waves in the ______ leads indicate myocardial infarct  involving  anterior surface of the heart
  • The lead to the left of the sternum at the fourth intercostal space is?
  • A 12-lead ECG that reveals ST elevation in all of the precordial leads most indicates myocardial?
  • The appearance of a pathological Q wave on an ECG indicates the presence of ______ tissue

Volume 3 Chapter 3 Quiz

  1. Your patient is a 32 year old male who is alert and oriented, complaining of severe pain.  He states he has a history of disk herniation.  Today, he experienced an acute onset of lower back pain while lifting a heavy box.  Physical exam. Reveals a palpable muscle spasm and pain with palpation at the level of L4 and L5.  He is lying on his right side and states that the pain is too severe for him to move.  Which of the following would not be appropriate?
  2. During a domestic disturbance, your patient experienced a sudden onset of violent, bizarre movements of the extremeties followed by unresponsiveness to verbal stimuli.  On your arrival, the bizarre movements begin again but stop suddenly when you firmly say, STOP! This most indicates _______ seizure
  3. A series of two or more generalized motor seizures without an intervening period of consciousness is/are known as a _______ seizure
  4. Which of the following diseases is characterized by a progressive degeneration of the nerve cells that control volutary movement, weakness, loss of motor control, difficulty speaking, and cramping?
  5. Which of the following is a collection of genetic diseases characterized by progressive muscle weakness and skeletal muscle degeneration?
  6. Your patient is a 72 year old male with a history of coronary artery disease and atrial fibrillation.  He complains of a sudden onset of blindness in his right eye.  He is noncompliant with both his digitalis and coumadin.  He is alert and oriented.  Which of the following is LEAST likely?
  7. A patient with aphasia following a stroke would have involvement in the _______ love of the brain.
  8. Your patient states that he often experiences a painful cramping and freezing up of his hands and feet while handwriting or walking, respectively.  This best describes:
  9. Your patient is a 23 year old male in an alcohol treatment facility who is having tonic-clonic motor activity that began 15 minutes ago.  The patient has no history of seizures, and one of the counselors cautions you that this patient would probably do anything to get out of rehab and that he might be faking the seizure.  Which of the following findings is least reliable when determining the authenticity of the patients seizure?
  10. Your patient is a 59 year old male who became ill while shopping for antiques with his wife.  Your general impression is that the patient is awake but does not respond to your presence, has peripheral cyanosis, and is making weak, rapid respiratory effort but moving very little air.  Which of the following syould you do next?
  11. Your patient is a 64 year old male who is alert and oriented, and visibly upset, sitting on a bench in a shopping mall, complaining of weakness.  He describes an acute onset of left sided weakness in his arm and leg that made it difficult for him to walk.  Physical exam reveals noticeable left sided weakness, PEARL, skin warm and dry.  Which of the following is most appropriate?
  12. Your patient, a 56 year old female, is alert but disoriented after a seizure her sister witnessed.  Her sister describes a 2 minute generalized seizure that ended a few minutes before you arrived.  The patient has a history of seizures treated with clonazepam, and type 2 diabetes treated with glucophage.  The patient is slightly uncooperative and does not seem to understand why you are there.  Physical exam is unremarkable, except for persistent disorientation to time, place, and event.  Which of the following is most appropriate at this point?
  13. A seizure that remains confined to a limited portion of the brain, causing localized dysfunction is a ______ seizure.
  14. You are transporting a male patient to the hospital for an evaluation after a possible seizure when you notice the patients LOC.  His muscles start to contract so that he is arching his back.  This best describes the ________ phase of a generalized seizure.
  15. An alteration in mental status that comes on abruptly, may have a life threatening underlying cause, and can be reversed with proper treatment best describes which of the following conditions?
  16. An 8 year old male child is alert and oriented after a brief episode of eyelid fluttering and slight loss of muscle tone, which caused him to slump in his chair.  His teacher reports that the child was inattentive for about 15-20 seconds during the episode but was fine after.  This most indicates an _______ seizure
  17. A seizure that begins an an aberrant electrical discharge in a small area of the brain but spreadsto include the entire cerebral cortex is a
  18.   A patient tells you that she experienced an episode of involuntary shaking in her arm.  She describes a 1 to 2 minute long episode of muscular jerking and contracting of her entire left arm.  She retained consciousness, lacked and aura, and had no pain associated with the episode.  This most indicates a _______ seizure.
  19. Which of the following is characterized by involuntary muscle twitching?
  20. Your patient is a 52 year old female who is alert, but slightly confused after a syncopal episode lasting abou 1 min.  She has no complaints, and your physical exam reveals no abnormalities aside from slight confusion.  She has had a stroke and has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension.  Which of the following is least likely to cause the patients episode?
  21. Which of the following is least pertinent in the prehospital setting when obtaining the history of a patient with a suspected transient ischemic attack or stroke?
  22. Patients with ________ disease experiences tremors, periodic muscular rigidity, slowed movement, and impaired balance and coordination.
  23. Your patient is a 76 year old female who is lethargic but responds to verbal stimuli.  According to family members, the patient experienced a sudden decrease in consciousness level.  Physical exam reveals left sided facial droop, aphasia, a dilated and unreactive right pupil, and a flaccid left arm.  Lung sounds are decreased bilaterally.  Your partner is assisting ventilations with BVM with O2.  During your exam, the patient exhibits generalized seizure activity lasting about 30 seconds and is now unresponsive.  Which of the following is most appropriate?
  24. Which of the following diseases involves inflammation followed by demyelination of the brain and spinal cord nerve fibers?
  25. Which of the following does NOT indicate ICP
  26. You are caring for a 62 year old female patient experiencing a sudden onset of unilateral facial drooping and confusion.  Other findings that could be expected in this patient include all of the following except?
  27. Your patient is a 19 yo female who is exhibiting generalized seizure activity.  Her roommate states that she had a seizure that lasted about 3 minutes, remained unresponsive, and started having another seizure about 5 minutes after the first.  The patient has peripheral cyanosis and copius oral secretions.  Which of the following is of HIGHEST priority for this patient?
  28. All of the following may cause a transient ischemic attack EXCEPT:
  29. Your patient is a 55 year old male with a history of seizures who is on the floor, experiencing tonic-clonic motor activity.  His jaw is clenched, he has peripheral cyanosis and there are frothy secreations in his airway.  Hr-130 RR-4 and shallow sao2-88 Which of the following is not appropriate?
  30. A type of generalized seizure characterized by a rapid LOC and motor coordination, muscle spasms, and jerking motions is known as:
  31. Which of the following is a risk factor for stroke:
  32. Your patient is a 62 yo female who is alert and oriented, sitting at her kitchen table.  Her husband describes an episode of slurred speech and facial drooping that lasted about 10 minutes and resolved just PTA.  Physical exam is unremarkable.  She has no significant med history and takes no meds.  Which of the following is most likely?
  33. Which of the following is caused by unilateral paralysis of cranial nerve VII?
  34. Your patient is a 55 yo male cab driver who was found unresponsive in the drivers seat of his vehicle, which has been parked in front of a hotel for about 45 minutes.  The patient is unresponsive to painful stimulus, has snoring resp. at 12 per minute, is cool, pale, and diaphoretic; and has a HR of 58 and a B/P of 170/104.  Which of the following does not help when determining the underlying cause of the patients condition?
  35. Your patient is a 45 year old female type I diabetic with a history of a nonhealing foot ulcer.  On exam, you find that she lacks sensation in her foot.  This is most likely due to:
  36. Which of the following should be part of the general management of a patient with altered mental status?
  37. The most common cause of dementia in the elderly is:
  38. your patient is a 24 yo male who is alert and oriented, complaining of severe dizziness and a earache for 2 days.  He states that any movement of his head causes him to become very dizzy and nauseated.  The patients skin is warm and dry, his pupils are equal and reactive, and there is no gross neurological deficit.  Which of the following is most likely?
  39. Your patient is a 37 yo male with a history of seizures who is noncompliant with his meds.  Friends at his apartment state that he had a seizure, which they describe as being generalized, lasting 3-4 minutes.  After the seizure, he gradually became alert and oriented.  On your arrival, his only complaint is of being tired and wanting to sleep.  Physical exam reveals warm, moist skin and an abrasion to his lower lip.  The patient does not wish to be transported, though you have clearly explained the risks of refusing transport in light of his noncompliance with his meds.  Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
  40. Your patient is a 57 yo male who is alert and oriented, complaining of a slight headache.  His coworkers state the patient fainted.  The patient describes feeling weak and lightheaded before the incident, and came to lying on the floor.  Medical history includes cardiovascular disease with a history of angina and hypertension.  Meds include clopidogrel (plavix), nitro, and metoprolol.  Which of the following is LEAST helpful when formulating a field impression for this patient?
  41. Which of the following infectious childhood diseases would most likely result in paralysis?
  42. Your patient is a 32 yo female who is alert but in significant distress, complaining of a migrane.  She has a history of migraines, describes a gradual onset of headache this morning, and is now experiencing nausea and intense throbbing pain behind her temples.  She is lying on a couch in a dim room and keeps her eyes closed while talking to you in a low voice.  Which of the following is MOST appropriate in pre hospital management of this patient?
  43. The neurotransmitter found in the synaptic terminals of the sympathetic nerves is?
  44. Which of the following should be suspected as a potential cause of syncope?
  45. Your pt has a history of epilepsy and is experiencing loss of consciousness, tonic-clonic muscle activity, and erratic ocular movement.  Based on this you might also except to find all of the following EXCEPT:
  46. Which of the following does NOT indicate increased intracranial pressure?

Volume 3 Chapter 4 Quiz

  1. Secretion of glucagons from the pancreas results in hepatic _________ and a subsequent ______ of blood glucose.
  2. Which of the following is NOT a modifiable risk factor for type 2 diabetes?
  3. Your patient is a 56 yo male who is conscious and exhibits slurred speech; irritability; and cool, clammy skin.  Blood glucose is 54 mg/dl.  Proper treatment for this patient could include all of the following EXCEPT:
  4. Which of the following is NOT a possible precipitating factor of thyrotoxic crisis?
  5. Immediately after birth, an infant is allowed to suckle at the mothers breast.  Milk flows from the nipple, and palpation of the uterus suggests that the uterus is contracting.  These findings suggest that the:
  6. A 63 yo female with a medical history of type 2 diabetes presents with a 4 day history of increased urination and thirst.  She called EMS this morning when she experienced a brief period of dizziness while getting out of bed.  You also note that the patient is slightly confused and has warm, dry skin and mucus membranes.  Based on this patient presentation, what other finding could you expect?
  7. You are presented with a 42 yo male patient who is supine on the floor, responsive to pain only.  His wife states that he has been extremely depressed recently and had talked about suicide the night before.  PE reveals hot, dry skin; pupils dilated and reactive to light bilaterally; and vomit around his mouth.  Temp via tympanic thermometer is 105.5F.  The patients wife states a med. History of hypothyroidism for which he takes synthriod. Your partner suctions the airway and intitiates BVM ventilations with 100% O2 and an OPA.  Further treatment for this patient should include:
  8. Which of the following would you expect to see immediately after the ingestion of a large meal?
  9. A type 1 diabetic female patient presents with deep, rapid respirations and a fruity odor on her breath.  Administration of which of the following meds. Would best help correct the underlying physiologic disturbance?
  10. Which of the following pathologies would necessitate the careful preparation of an IV site due to skin fragility and increased risk of infection?
  11. Your patient is a 39 year old type 1 diabetic male with a history of alcoholism who presents on the floor after taking his insulin and skipping breakfast.  You note cool, clammy skin and a weak, rapid pulse, blood glucose is 21mg/dl.  Your partner assists the patient’s resp. with 100% O2 and a BVM; O2 saturation rises to 100%.  You cannot initiate IV access after two attempts.  Further appropriate treatment would include:
  12. Your patient is a 45 yo type 1 diabetic complaining of a 5 day history of abd. Pain, N/V, and increased urination and thirst.  His skin and mucus membranes are warm and dry.  Your treatment for this patient would most likely include:
  13. Which of the following is associated with a greater predisposition for hypoglycemia due to decreased gluconeogenisis?
  14. To which of the following can osmotic diuresis, increased excretion, and ketosis be attributed in a diabetic patient with hyperglycemia?
  15. A type 1 diabetic patient who _________is NOT likely to experience hypoglycemia.
  16. Which of the following best explains why, compared to type 1 diabetes, untreated type 11 typically presents with lower blood glucose levels in hyperglycemia and fewer metabolic disturbances?
  17. Prehospital management of an unconscious patient with hypoglycemia should not include:
  18. A 24 yo male is supine on the floor and unconscious with snoring resp.  You note a weak, rapid pulse and cool, diaphoretic skin.  BG is 24 mg/dl.  After manually opening the airway, which of the following is the best sequence of actions?
  19. A patient presents with a history of excessive diuresis, signs and symptoms of dehydration, and a BS of 958mg/dl but has no acetone like odor on his breath.  To which of the following can the absence of an acetone like odor most likely be attributed?
  20. You encounter a patient complaining of polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia, and abd. Pain.  Based on these complaints, which of the following would you also expect to find?
  21. It is noon, and you are presented with an unconscious 56 yo male lying on his couch.  His daughter states that he is a type 1 diabetic and confirms that he ate breakfast and took his insulin this morning.  She also states that he has had a chest cold and a low grade fever for the past 3 days.  BG is 24mg/dl.  What is the most likely cause of this patients hypoglycemia?
  22. Damage resulting in inactivity to _____pancreatic cells would result in hyperglycemia.
  23. A 22 yo male, unconscious after a MVC, is being cared for by a BLS crew.  He is fully immobilized, and ventilations are being provided by BVM with an OPA in place.  Witnesses report that the patients vehicle was traveling on the highway at about 55 miles per hour, then swerved for no apparent reason and drove off the shoulder, rolling over once before coming to rest on its wheels.  The patient was initially found in the drivers seat with his seat belt on.  Physical exam reveals some minor abrasions to the patients face and shoulders; the airway is clear, the chest, abd., extremeties, and pelvis are fine; bilateral breath sounds are clear and equal.  BG is 42mg/dl.  Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment of this patient:
  24. Which of the following explains the profound protein catabolism and gluconeogenesis associated with Cushings syndrome?
  25. Your patient is a 45 yo insulin dependent diabetic complaining of weakness.  He states a 5 day history of increased thirst, urination, and hunger.  You note that he has warm and dry skin and dry mucus membranes.  BG is 562mg/dl.  Which of the following statements BEST describes the Pathophysiology of this patients apparent dehydration?
  26. Your patient is a 72 yo male who presents conscious but lethargic, sitting in a chair.  His son states that the patient has been a bit slow lately, has been gaining weight, and would like him checked out at the emergency department.  Med. Hx includes hypothyroidism and MI.  The patient has been compliant with his synthroid and has nitro for  use as needed.  Phys exam reveals that the patient responds to verbal stimuli though is noticeably confused, has a large tongue, and has skin that is pale, cold and doughy.  He is constipated.  Temp. 88F, BG 180mg/dl.  Your treatment of this patient is:
  27. A 16 yo female with a history of diabetes is found unconscious in a high school bathroom following volleyball practice.  She is tachycardiac; has cool, clammy skin; is lethargic; slightly combative; and very confused.  She is most likely experiencing?
  28. A 68 yo female is supine in bed at a rehabilitation hospital.  She is unresponsive and has gurgling resp.  Staff reports that the patient is at the facility recovering from right hip replacement surgery performed 14 days prior and has had worsening infection at the surgery site over the past 7 days.  Staff also reports that the patient had a slight altered mental status yesterday and was found unconscious this moring.  Pysical exam reveals an accumulation of secretions in her airway, lung sounds CBL, and skin and mucus membranes warm and dry.  You also note erythema and a purulent discharge from surgical incision.  Which of the following is the best treatment of this patient?
  29. A chemical substance that is released into the blood by a gland and that controls or affects processes in other glands or body systems is a:
  30. Which of the following best explains the process of osmotic diuresis associated with hyperglycemia?
  31. A type 2 diabetic with a blood glucose of 24mg/dl would most likely be unconscious due to:
  32. Acute exacerbation of Addisons disease can lead to ECG changes and cardiovascular collapse as a result of:
  33. Biologically significant quantities of ketone bodies in the blood indicate that:

Volume 3 Chapter 5 Quiz

  1. You are called to the home of a 28 yo male who is complaining of hoarseness, a scratchy sensation in the back of his throat, and palpitations.  The symptoms began about 30 minutes ago and have grown steadily worse ever since the patient prescribed penicillin 1 hour ago.  Patient management should include all of the following EXCEPT:
  2. Your patient is experiencing dyspnea and urticaria after ingesting penicillin.  Auscultation of his lung fields reveals diffuse expiratory wheezes throughout.  Which of the following meds will best help correct your patients bronchospasm?
  3. Which of the following is the best route for administering epinephrine to patients in severe anaphylactic shock?
  4. Diphenhydramine is administered in anaphylaxis because it:
  5. Which of the following signs indicates aggressive airway maintenance in a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction?
  6. Which of the following treatment regimens for anaphylaxis lists the meds in the correct order of administration following O2?
  7. Your patient is a 46 yo male who is unconscious on his front lawn after being stung by a bee.  You note Angioneurotic edema.  HR=132, BP=76/40, RR=24 and shallow.  You should?
  8. Your patient is a 31 yo female complaining of dizziness and difficulty breathing after being stung by a bee.  You note that she is extremely anxious, and your physical exam reveals a rapidly developing urticaria to her shoulders, neck, and face.  While you are performing your PE and interview, your partner has administered O2 via a NRB, initiated IV access, placed the patient on the cardiac monitor, and administered epi SQ and diphenhydramine IV.  Despite this, you also note that her voice is quickly becoming more hoarse, and that she has developed expiratory wheezes in all lung fields.  What should be your major concern at this point, and what is the most appropriate treatment?
  9. Immunity resulting from a direct attack on a foreign substance by specialized cells in the immune system is:
  10. Following exposure to an allergen, a patient experiences a release of histamine and heparin into the surrounding tissues.  Which of the following best explains the cause of the histamine and heparin release?
  11. An allergens most common route of entry in an anaphylactic reaction is:
  12. Which of the following statements about antihistamine use in anaphylaxis treatment is TRUE?
  13. Which of the following statements about codicosteroid use in anaphylaxis treatement is TRUE?
  14. Your patient is experiencing profuse hives, itching, dyspnea, coughing, tachycardia, and dizziness after eating seafood 5 minutes ago.  You might also expect to see all of the following signs EXCEPT:
  15. Epinephrine administraton results in all of the following EXCEPT:
  16. The first medication administered to a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction should be?
  17. A 58 yo male with significant cardiac history is unconscious after taking a dose of penicillin.  His skin is pale with peripheral cyanosis.  Your partner initiates BVM ventilations with 100% O2 while you place the patient on the cardiac monitor and start an IV.  Of the following, the most appropriate next course of action is to:
  18. Your patient is a conscious and alert 22 yo female who was stung by a hornet.  She states that she has allergies to bee stings and has been told that she could die if stung.  Your physical exam reveals a 1-cm in diameter, red, edematous area where she was stung on the left forearm.  Her skin is warm and dry, and her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally.  The most appropriate threatment for this patient would include:
  19. Which sign associated with an allergic reaction should concern a caregiver the most?
  20. ________ is a potentially life threatening condition involving the head, neck, face, and upper airway.
  21. Which of the following medications for treating allergic reactions and anaphylaxis also relieves the abdominal cramping associated with both?
  22. Which medication would be the best choice for reducing the bronchospasm and laryngeal edema associated with anaphylaxis?
  23. Which medication is best for improving hypotension secondary to anaphylactic shock?
  24. The two most common causes of fatal anaphylaxis are _______ and _______.
  25. Which from the following best describes why the secondary response to an antigen is faster than the primary response?
  26. Approximately______ deaths are attributed annually to anaphylaxis in the US.
  27. _______ is considered an ominous sign late in anaphylaxis.
  28. Which treatment would best halt the urticaria associated with an allergic reaction?
  29. Upon identifying an antigen in the bloodstream, B cells launch a chemical attack by producing antigens specific to the antibody.  This is an example of _____ immunity?
  30. Your patient is a 43- year old female with a history of peanut allergy.  She is complaining of dizziness after eating a casserole that she later discovered contained peanuts.  Your PE reveals warm, diaphoretic skin; a blotchy, red tash covering her chest and arms; and lung sounds that are clear and equal bilaterally.  In addition to providing oxygen, appropriate treatment for this patient includes:

Volume 3 Chapter 6 Quiz

  1. Murphy’s sign is:
  2. Your patient is a 22- year old female in mild distress who is complaining of left lower quadrant abdominal pain and nausea.  Which of the following questions would be LEAST helpful when determining the etiology of her abdominal pain?
  3. All of the following contribute to the pathogenesis of diverticulosis EXCEPT:
  4. Your patient, who has a history of Cholecystitis, is experiencing pain in her right shoulder.  She is most likely experiencing _____ pain.
  5. While palpating the lower abdomen of a 63- year old male complaining of back pain, you note a pulsating mass.  You should:
  6. Which of the following correctly lists the organs and regions of the gastrointestinal tract in sequence after the stomach?
  7. Your patient is a 24- year old male complaining of a 1 week history of abdominal pain.  He describes the pain as in the upper-right quadrant, dull and reproducible with movement and palpation.  He also describes a decreased appetite, weight loss, and clay-colored stool over the same period.  Of the following, which is the most likely cause of his clinical condition?
  8. Your patient is a 66- year old female who is conscious and alert, complaining of a 1- week history of progressive “lightheadedness” with exertion.  She also complain of mild nausea; dark, sticky stools, and pain in her lower abdomen.  Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patients condition?
  9. A 52 yo male is in moderate distress, complaining of nausea and vomiting.  He describes a 3 day history of upper left quadrant abdominal pain described as sharp and radiating to his back.  You note a slightly distended abdomen.  He called EMS today when he developed nausea and vomiting.  He denies any change of bowel habits and states he has a history of alcoholism.  Of the following, which is most likely the cause of his clinical condition?
  10. All of the following are considered part of the lower gastrointestinal tract EXCEPT the:
  11. The mortality rate of ruptured esophageal varices is over ____ percent.
  12. Your patient is a 44 yo female complaining of a 3 day history of localized abd pain in her midepigrastric region after eating.  The pain tends to subside with antacids.  Today she is experiencing nausea and the pain did not subside with antacids.  The patient gives a history of smoking and moderate alcohol consumption.  The patients skin is warm and dry, and she has a blood pressure of 128/88, a HR of 84, and resp of 20.  Your course of treatment would be:
  13. Which of the three mechanisms can produce visceral pain?
  14. A 46 yo female alcoholic is hypotensive, in severe distress, complaining of dysphagia, and vomiting bright red blood.  Of the following, which is the most likely cause of this patients clinical condition?
  15. Bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract proximal of the ligament of Treitz is considered to be in the:
  16. Your patient is a 19 yo male complaining of a 2 day history of abd pain described as diffuse and colicky, located around his umbilical area.  He also states a loss of apetite and a low grade fever over the same period.  Palpation of his abdomen reveals tenderness and guarding to the periumbilical area.  Of the following, which is the most likely cause of his clinical condition?
  17. A 56 yo female is conscious and alert, complaining of diarrhea and nausea.  The patient describes a 2 day history of her symptoms and states that the pain is all over her abdomen.  All four quadrants are tender to palpation.  She also describes hematochezia.  PMH includes CAD, and she recently began taking 324mg of ASA once a day.  Of the following, which is the most likely cause of his clinical condition?
  18. Your patient is a 46 yo male truck driver who is sitting on a toilet complaining of bleeding with defecation.  He states that he had to strain significantly to produce a bowel movement, then noted blood on his stool afterwards.  He claims no significant medical history, has had no recent illness, and takes no medication.  You note the presence of bright red blood on the surface of his stool.  Of the following, which is the most likely cause of his clinical condition?
  19. Increased hepatic resistance to blood flow, as happens in cirrhosis, results in:
  20. Your 43 yo male patient is alertand oriented, complaining of abd pain.  He states that he is experiencing nausea and has vomited twice.  Which of the following is the most appropriate follow up question?
  21. Which of the following questions would best help you determine if the pathology of a patient complaint has been progressing?
  22. Your patient is 44 yo female with a history of hiatal hernia.  She is complaining of diffuse abd pain.  All four quadrants are tender to palpitation.  She also states that she has vomited numerous times and describes the presence of bile.  You note that her abdomen is slightly distende, and auscultation o her abd reveals absent bowel sounds.  Of the following which is the most likely cause of her clinical condition?
  23. Another name for gallstones is
  24. All of the following are located in the upper right quadrant except:
  25. _____ pain allows an examiner to pinpoint the area of irritation
  26. The order to properly access the abdomen is
  27. A 52 year old male is in moderate distress, complaining of nausea and vomiting.  He describes a 3 day history of upper left quadrant abdominal pain described as sharp and radiating to his back.  You note a slighty distended abdomen.  He called EMS today when he developed nausea and vomiting.  He denies any change of bowel habits and states he has a history of alcoholism.  Of the following, which is the most likely cause of his clinical condition?

Volume 3 Chapter 7 Quiz

  1. Which of the following is LEAST likely to lead to acute renal failure?
  2. Your patient is a 30-year old male complaining of pain radiating from the left flank into the groin.  He states that it began as a vague pain in his flank, then became very sharp and radiating.  Based on his description of his pain, you would also expect him to complain of?
  3. The structure in the kidney that forms urine is the?
  4. All of the following are major functions of the kidney except:
  5. A 76-year old patient with acute interstitial nephritis presents with oliguria, altered mental status, and edema to his face, hands, and feet.  Of the following, which best describes the pathophysiology behind these clinical findings?
  6. All of the following are common complications of renal dialysis EXCEPT:
  7. All of the following symptoms are consistent with urinary tract infections EXCEPT:
  8. Your 42-year old patient with no medical history presents with a 2-day history of distended abdomen; edema to the face, hands, and feet; and oliguria.  Of the following, which is the likely clinical diagnosis?
  9. The structure that filters blood into a nephron is the:
  10. Your patient is a 22-year old male who is a alert and in mild discomfort, complaining of left flank pain.  The paitnet describes the pain as diffuse, located at the left flank, and states that it has been getting increasingly more “crampy” over the past 30 min. he describes the pain as a 3/10 on the pain scale.  He denies dysuria and hematuria.  Based on your clinical findings, which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
  11. Your patient is a 68-year-old female who is conscious but confused, lying supine in bed without complaint. Her daughter states that the patient was recently diagnosed with a bladder infection and has been taking antibiotics.  She also states that her mother has not produced urine for 2 days, during which she has become increasingly confused.  Physical examination revels swelling to the face, hands, and feet; cool and moist skin; and lung sounds that are clear and equal bilaterally.  HR=104, BP = 142/88, RR = 14, SaO2 = 96%.  In additions to administering oxygen, which of the following course of action is most appropriate?
  12. Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis differ in all the following ways EXCEPT:
  13. The leading cause of end stage renal failure is
  14. Two sugar solutions of unknown concentrations are placed in a container on separate sides of a semipermeable membrane.  After some time, you note that there is a net movement of water across the membrane from side A to side B of the container.  Which of the following statements about the two solutions is true?
  15. Which of the following about chronic renal failure is TRUE?
  16. All of the following may be associated with urinary tract infection EXCEPT:
  17. A patient experiencing restlessness, agitation, dysuria, and flank pain radiating into the groin.  Appropriate treatment for this patient would consist of all the following EXCEPT:
  18. Of the following which is true of the changes in blood chemistry in a patient with chronic renal failure?
  19. Your patient is a 32 yr old female, alert and complaining of dysuria.  She describes a three day history of urinary pain, urgency, and difficulty.  She describes her dysuria as a 5 on a scale of 1 to 10.  Physical examination reveals tenderness on palpation of the lower abdomen, bilaterally, and warm, dry skin.  HR = 88, BP = 126/78, RR = 12.  The most appropriate action is
  20. 68 year old male conscious but confused, laying supine on his kitchen floor.  The patient had no complaint other than wishing to be helped up from the floor.  The patient can tell you that he slipped a few days ago and has been on the floor since then.  Phsical exam reveals dry, cool skin, dry mucu=ous membranes, clear lung sounds bilaterally and no indications of trauma.  HR = 112, BP = 98/70, RR = 14, SaO2 = 96%.  Your partnet finda an appointment card indicating that the patienr missed a dialysis appt. 2 days ago.  Which of the following is the best course of action for managing this patient?

Volume 3 Chapter 8 Quiz

  1. Your patient is a 48-year old female who is unconscious with snoring respirations after ingesting an unknown substance.  You note cold, peripherally cyanotic skin and a weak, rapid pulse.  Her pupils are equal and reactive but constricted.  She has no unusual odors, and her blood glucose levels is 80 mg/dl.  Which of the following is appropriate?
  2. Which of the following correctly pairs a toxin with its antidote?
  3. When a substance enters the body through the gastrointestinal tract, it has accessed the body by ______.
  4. The need to progressively increase the dose of a drug to reproduce the effect originally achieved at smaller doses is:
  5. A compulsive and overwhelming dependence on a chemical substance is:
  6. The pathophysiology of toxic inhalation involves:
  7. LSD, STP, and PCP are examples of :
  8. “Rock” and “crack” are street names for:
  9. Which of the following is a narcotic?
  10. Alcohol is classified as a:
  11. Restoril and ativan are examples of:
  12. A 19-year old male has ingested fifty 325 mg aspirin tablets 20 min. before your arrival.  He is alert and complaining of burning abdominal pain.  Which of the following is appropriate in the prehospital management of this patient?
  13. Your patient is a 16-year old female who has taken an overdose of Phenobarbital.  She is unresponsive.  Her skin is cool and pale, and she has a BP of 92/60, HR 60, RR 6.  You have intubated the patient and started an IV.  Which of the following is appropriate?
  14. Your patient is a 44-year old male has been in jail for 3 days after being arrested for driving while intoxicated.  He now presents with diaphoresis, anxiety, hallucinations, insomnia, and tremors, blood glucose of 85 mg/dl.  Which of the following is appropriate?
  15. A patient is experiencing severe abdominal cramping, vomiting, diarrhea, and facial flushing after eating undercooked chicken.  Management of this patient should include all of the following EXCEPT:
  16. Which of the following is a highly toxic, odorless, tasteless gas that is a by-product of incomplete combustion?
  17. Prozac, paxil, and Zoloft are all examples of:
  18. Naproxen, ibuprofen, and ketorolac are all examples of :
  19. Your patient is a 29- year old male who is conscious, alert, and extremely hyperactive after using cocaine.  Physical examination reveals warm, diaphoretic skin and dilated pupils bilaterally.  Which of the following medications should be considered to manage this patient?
  20. Your patient is a 2 yo male who is alert and crying after ingesting bathroom cleaner.  Physical exam reveals no obvious burns or irritations to his oropharynx, and his skin is cool and dry.  Which of the following is most appropriate?
  21. Narcan as an antagonist to all of the following medications EXCEPT:
  22. The primary goal with a patient who has been bitten by a pit viper is to:
  23. A 54 yo female presents conscious and alert in significant pain after a rattlesnake biter to her hand.  You note two small puncture wounds surrounded by a swollen, red area.  She states that she is nauseous and has chills.  Your management of this patient should include:
  24. A 32 yo male presents conscious and in mild distress, complaining of nausea and sweating.  He states that his symptoms started 2 days ago when he stopped drinking cold turkey.  Physical exam reveals cool, diaphoretic skin; slightly dilated pupils bilaterally; and a general weakness to all extremeties.  Which of the following findings would also be likely?

Volume 3 Chapter 9 Quiz

  1. Which of the following statements about immunity is true?
  2. Which of the following situations would not result in anemia?
  3. Your patient is a 26 yo afro American male who is alert and in severe distress, complaining of pain in his hands and feet, as well as abdominal pain.  The pain began this morning but has progressed from an initial rating of 5/10 to a 9/10 at the present time.  The patient has a history of sickle anemia and denies any trauma.  Physical exam reveals cool, diaphoretic, skin, pain with palpation to all of abdomen, splenomegaly and Priapism.  Select the most appropriate diagnosis and treatment?
  4. Which of the following situations would result in erythropoietin secretions?
  5. A smoker who also takes supplemental vitaming K would be expected to?
  6. Which of the following statements about leukocytes is false?
  7. In the presence of calcium, thrombin will encourage ______
  8. You are pruning a rose bush and puncture the skin of your thumb with a thorn.  The next day, you note that the area is swollen.  Which of the following best explains the swelling that has just occurred?
  9. When patients experience lacerations on their hands, the clotting process that occurs is mediated by the _____ pathway.
  10. Which of the following situations would result in a more rapid response by the immune system to an infection?
  11. Prehospital treatment for a hemophiliac patient who is bleeding is to
  12. In a pt with hematological disease resulting in high production of abnormal red blood cells, which of the following would you be most likely to find
  13. Which of the following statements about DIC is true
  14. Humoral and cell meditated immunity differ in that cell mediated immunity uses
  15. Which of the following is not a process in NOT a goal of the inflammatory process
  16. All are true about polycythemia EXCEPT:
  17. The more acidic the blood, the more readily the hemoglobin
  18. All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT:
  19. A cat scratches a patient on the arm.  Twenty four hours later, the area is swollen and red.  What additional signs and symptoms is she most likely to exhibit

Quiz  3-10

  1. Which of the following may occur when unaclimated climbers ascend rapidly to altitudes of 6600 feet or greater.
  2. Which of the following statements correctly details the difference between superficial and deep frostbite
  3. The signs and symptoms of progressive altitude illness include all the following EXCEPT:
  4. Which of the following disorders is characterized by painful muscle contractions and weakness?
  5. Your pt is a 32 year old female mountain climber who lost her glove in frigid conditions.  The fingers of her right hand are hard, white, cold, and noncompliant.  You are based in a warm cabin, but, due to weather conditions, you cannot evacuate your patient for 24 to 36 hours.  In addition to administering analgesia, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
  6. A diver was forced to ascend rapidly from 100 feet to the surface when he ran out of air.  He now presents lying on the floor of the boat in the fetal position, complaining of pain to his abdomen.  He states that he exhaled the entire way to the surface.  He is most likely suffering from.
  7. An athlete is competing in a marathon on a very hot, humid day and is sweating profusely.  To prevent dehydration he has been drinking 30oz of water as advised by his coach.  By doing this he is increasing the risk for
  8. Your patient is a 32 year old male who has been putting a new roof on his garage in unseasonably warm spring temperatures.  He complained of weakness; is conscious; is sweating profusely; and has rapid, shallow breathing and a weak, rapid pulse.  He is most likely suffering from
  9. Which of the following statements about thermoregulation is TRUE?
  10. The body dissipates excessive heat by
  11. Which physiologic response has most likely occurred in a patient who has suffered a dry drowning
  12. Which of the following measures in important in preventing hyperthermia
  13. A female patient is complaining of numbness in her fingers and toes that started while she was skiing.  Upon examination, her extremities appear soft and blanched.  Patient management should consist of.
  14. All of the following are considered risk factors that predispose individuals to environmental illness except
  15. A 72 year old male is found unconscious in his font yard.  His wife states that he has been working in the yard for about 4 hours.  He has a bounding pulse of 50; hot dry skin; and shallow respirations.  Management should consist of all the following except
  16. All of the following compensate for hypothermia except:
  17. A 12 year old male is pulled from the ocean in cardiopulmonary arrest after drowning.  When en route to the hospital, you auscultate lung sounds to verify that your ET tube is still in place and note pulmonary edema.  Which of the following best explains the pathology of the developing pulmonary edema

Volume 3 Chapter 11 Quiz

  1. Mushrooms and yeast are examples of:
  2. You have just started an IV in the back of a moving ambulance.  Which of the following is the best way to dispose of your contaminated sharp?
  3. A 44 yo male staying in a homeless shelter is alert and complaining of shortness of breath.  He has a 2-week history of cough with hemoptysis, fever, chills, and night sweats.  Physical exam reveals skin to be wam and moist and lung sound decreased in the right upper lobe with rhonchi.  You should assume this patient has a high likelihood of having?
  4. Which of the following is best described as a charge from the abscnce of antibodies to detectable levels of antibodies in the blood after exposure to an infectious disease?
  5. Epidemiology is best described as the study of:
  6. Which of the following measures most effectively protects EMS providers from infectious disease?
  7. Which of the following is a mobile, single-celled, parasitic organism?
  8. Mononucleosis presents with all the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT?
  9. Which of the following agencies monitors national disease data and provides disease information to health care provider?
  10. Which of the following techniques destroys some, but not all, microorganisms?
  11. Hepatitis E is often associated with?
  12. For which of the following diseases is there no vaccine?
  13. Which of the following types of agents acts specifically by inhibiting bacterial growth or reproduction?
  14. Which hepatitis often presents with hepatitis D?
  15. While working in the emergency department, you accidentally stick yourself with the stylette of an IV needle you just used to start an IV.  What do should you do immediately?
  16. Which of the following is NOT a known transmission route for hepatitis B?
  17. Which of the following organisms causes mononucleosis?
  18. Which of the following statements about influenza and the influenza virus is false?
  19. Which of the following is NOT a common pediatric viral disease
  20. Which of the following about mumps is true?
  21. Your patient is a 20 year old female college student who lives in a dormitory.  She complains of weakness, fever, chills, nausea, a rash on her chest, and neck pain.  Physical examination revels warm, moist skin; pain with flexion of her neck; and a petechial rash on her chest.  HR=92, BP=106/68, RR=14, SaO2=99%.  Which of the following is most appropriate?
  22. Your patient is a 64 year old male who is in a rehabilitation facility.  He is 5 days postoperative for repair of a hip fracture.  He is complaining of SOB, which has been progressing for the past two days.  He has a fever and a cough productive of purulent sputum.  Physical examination reveals hot, moist skin, and bilateral lower lobe rhonchi.  HR=122, BP=126/88, RR=28, SaO2=92%.  Which of the following is most appropriate?
  23. Which of the following statements about sinusitis is FALSE?
  24. Your patient is a 21 year old male who is alert and orientated, complaining of a rash that started about 36 hours ago, first appearing on his truck.  The rash has now spread to his face and extremities.  You notice multiple small fluid filled vesicles on the patients body.  The patient is concered that he will miss work as a second grade student teacher.  He has no medical history, including childhood diseases.  The patient is most likely suffering from
  25. The destructive substances released from some bacteria when they die are known as
  26. Which of the following statements about herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) is false?

Volume 3 Chapter 13 Quiz

  1. Ovulation occurs:
  2. Your 28 yr old female pt was sexually assaulted with a foreign object and is bleeding heavily from the vagina.  Which of the following is appropriate?
  3. Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated PID (pelvic inflammatory disease)?
  4. You are called to the scene of a sexual assault.  You are presented with a 19-yr old female who is withdrawn and sitting in a corner in her bedroom.  Which of the following questions is appropriate to ask?
  5. If fertilization of and egg occurs, which phases of the menstrual cycle in progress does not occur?
  6. The term used to describe how many times a women has been pregnant is
  7. A 24 yr old female presents complaining of severe lower quadrant abdominal pain and bloody, purulent vaginal discharge 3 days after having a dilation and curettage.  Of the following, which is the most likely clinical condition of this patient?
  8. A 45 yr old female presents complaining of abdominal pain just superior to the symphysis pubis, urinary frequency, dysuria, and a fever of 99 degrees F.  Based on her complaints her best diagnosis would be?
  9. Endometritis is a complication associated with all the following except:
  10. A 35 yr old female presents complaining of a one year history of a dull, crampy pain in her pelvis that comes with her menstrual cycle, yet is very different from normal menstrual discomfort.  She also describes dysparenunia and frequent spotting.  Of the following, which is the most likely clinical condition of this pt?
  11. The muscular organ that contains the fetus, placenta, amniotic fluid, and associated structures during pregnancy is the:
  12. The most common form of gynecological trauma is:
  13. Your patient is a 35 yr old female who is complaining of severe abdominal pain in both lower quadrants.  She states that she had tubal ligation 2 years ago and “knows she can’t be pregnant.”  Which of the following questions is appropriate to ask?
  14. Which of the following in not appropriate in the care of a victim of a sexual assault?
  15. Signs of an ectopic pregnancy include all of the following except:
  16. Menorrhagia is:
  17. Which of the following is true of mittelschmerz?
  18. Your pt is a 44 yr old female who is alert and in mild distress.  She states that she had an acute onset of sharp, right lower quadrant abdominal pain last evening while having intercourse and that the pain has not subsided.  She states the pain radiates to her lower back and rates it as a five on a scale of one to ten.  Physical examination revels tenderness with palpation to the lower right abdominal quadrant, and her skin is warm and dry.  HR=100, RR=12, BP=116/78, Her last menstrual period was three weeks ago, she had a tubal ligation ten years ago, and she states she has several small fibroid tumors.  Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this pt?
  19. A 20 yr old sexually active female presents in severe distress, hypotensive.  She describes an acute onset of sever lower R quadrant abdominal pain and states that she has not had her period in the last three months.  The most likely clinical diagnosis would be:
  20. The period of time from ovulation to menstruation is approximately _____ days.
  21.  Your pt is a 34 yr old female in no apparent distress, complaining of dysuria.  She describes a 4 day history of dysuria, urinary frequency, and hematuria.  She is sexually active with one partner, last menstrual period ten days ago and G3P3.  Physical examination revels warm, dry skin and pain with palpitation above the pubis.  HR=96, BP=124/68, RR=12, temp=99.9 F.  Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this pt?
  22. Which of the following is true of the fallopian tubes?

Volume 3 Chapter 14 Quiz

  1. Place the following neonatal resuscitation procedures in the correct order:
  2. Which of the following statements regarding meconium is NOT true?
  3. Which of the following refers to the time from conception to birth?
  4. You are assisting in the delivery of an infant after extremely prolonged labor.  During delivery of the head, you note presence of thick, green meconium in the patient’s airway.  What should your next cause of action be?
  5. The most important consideration when managing a premature infant is:
  6. Which of the following structures allows the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to and removal of wastes from the fetus?
  7. Your patient is 34 weeks pregnant, complaining of a headache and nausea.  Her blood pressure is 150/92, and she tells you that her doctor told her she has protein in her urine.  You note that her face, hands, and feet are edematous.  Which of the following is most likely?
  8. Which of the following is appropriate in the care of the patient in the first stage of labor?
  9. Preterm labor is defined as labor that begins before____ weeks of gestation.
  10. Which of the following is NOT a function of the placenta?
  11. Which of the following is NOT useful to the Prehospital care provider when obtaining the history of a pregnant patient?
  12. A newborn has blue extremities, a pink torso, a strong an active cry, a heart rate of 104, and some flexion of its extremities.  What is this newborn’s APGAR score?
  13. Which of the following is NOT appropriate when assisting with Prehospital delivery?
  14. When assisting with delivery, which of the following sequence is correct after instructing the mother to stop pushing when the baby’s head has delivered?
  15. All of the following statements about the physiological changes during pregnancy are true EXCEPT:
  16. The structure that connects the umbilical vein directly to the inferior vena cava is the:
  17. Which of the following maternal changes is expected during pregnancy?
  18. Which of the following statements about the umbilical cord is TRUE?
  19. The premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall is called:
  20. Your patient is a 25-year old female who is 38 weeks pregnant and complaining of contractions.  She states that she has been feeling contractions every 6-8 min for the past hour, has a crampy feeling in her lower abdomen, and is leaking amniotic fluid.  She states that she has been receiving prenatal care and has been identified as high risk for placenta previa.  Which of the following is most appropriate?
  21. Which stage of gestation begins at 8 weeks and continues until delivery?
  22. Your patient is a 32-year old female who complains of the onset of contractions 45 min. ago.  She is 39 weeks pregnant, G3P2.  She states that the contractions are 2 min. apart but that her membranes have not ruptured.  She is anxious and responds affirmatively when ask if she feels an urge to move her bowels.  Which of the following is most likely?
  23. Meconium staining indicate:
  24. A 33- year old female who is 30 weeks pregnant is alert and complaining of steady, bright red vaginal bleeding that began a half hour ago.  She denies pain and contractions, but states that she has had spotting “ON AND OFF” during her pregnancy.  Which of the following is most likely?
  25. Which of the following would be considered routine Prehospital care of the patient exhibiting indications of imminent delivery?
  26. Which of the following statements about neonatal resuscitation is NOT true?
  27. When the fetal scalp is visible at the vaginal opening during a contraction, this is known as:
  28. Which of the following is the most reliable sign of impending delivery?
  29. Your patient is a 41-year old female who is alert and in obvious distress, complaining of abdominal pain.  The patient states that she is 32 weeks pregnant and experienced an acute onset of tearing abdominal pain this evening.  She admits to smoking cocaine this afternoon.  She is G5P2 with two spontaneous abortions.  Her skin is cool, moist, and pale, and you note about 50 mL of dark red vaginal bleeding. Her abdomen is rigid to palpation in all quadrant.  Which of the following is most likely?
  30. Which of the following paramedic actions is indicated after uncomplicated delivery of the newborn?

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