PAR 100 Volume 1 Quiz – Question and Answers


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PAR 100 Volume 1 Quiz 1-7

  1. Which of the following questions should guide the paramedic in ethical decision Making?
  2. When students are working with patients under a preceptor in an EMS system, at which point should the preceptor inform the patients that their care or part of it is being performed by a student?
  3. When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you would be willing to undergo a procedure or action if you were in the pts place is know as
  4. If you receive a copy of a valid DNR order after you have begun resuscitation attempts, you are ethically obligated to:
  5. When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask whether you would want an action performed in all relevantly similar circumstances is known as the :
  6. You are on the scene of an 80yo F who is unresponsive and has shallow, snoring respirations. The pts husband wants you to do nothing for the patient, but her daughter is crying and pleading with you to do something to help her mother.  The Pt acks a DNR.  The husband insists that his wife would not want to be “ kept alive by machinces” Which of the following is the best course of action ethically?
  7. The most common situations involving allocation of scarce resources that paramedics will usually face are these involving:
  8. State laws requiring the reporting of births, deaths, certain infectious diseases, and child and elder abuse and neglect may require the paramedic to breach the obligation to protect the pts:
  9. The right of competent people to determine what happens to their bodies is one example of the principle of:
  10. Your paramedic partner is telling you about a situation in which he resused a pt with a DNR, even though the DNR was present and available to him at the time he began resus.  He tells you he is justified because the pt survived for a year after the incident and suffered no ill effects from the cardiac arrest or the resus effort.  Which of the following best describes the ethical approach used by your partner?
  11. The four fundamental priniciples or values used to resolve problems in bioethics today include all of the following except?
  12. When analyzing an ethical problem, the method in which you ask yourself whether you can vindicate your actions to others is know as the
  13. Rules and standards that govern the conduct of a particular group or profession are called
  14. Socail, religious, or personal standards of the right and wrong are called:
  15. The obligation of a paramedic to treat all pts fairly is an example of the priniciple of:
Volume 1 Quiz 8
  1. Adequate perfusion depends on:
  2. The type of blood that may be administered to all people in an emergency, regardless of their blood type is,
  3. Which of the following is a response to histamine release?
  4. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s three chief lines of defense against infection and injury?
  5. The excess elimination of hydrogen ions, as many occur in vomiting, can result in:
  6. You are presented with a pt displaying Urticaria, dyspnea, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, and dizziness.  This pt is MOST likely suffering from which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
  7. The spleen is a part of which organ system
  8. Which of the following processes is used when glucose enters a cell?
  9. The general term for the storing and creating energy in the body is?
  10. The process that produces an increase in cell size as a result of increasing workload is?
  11. B lymphocytes are primarily responsible for:
  12. A pt was shot in the abdomen and has a resultant massive hemorrhage and hypoperfusion, IV therapy would help treat hypoperfusion by?
  13. Which of the following terms can be defined as the activities of the body that allow the maintenance of physiological stability
  14. The amount of blood that returns to the heart during diastole
  15. Most of the formed elements of the blood are
  16. The sagittal plane separates right and left portions of the body True or Flase?
  17. The largest percentage of water in body is located in the?
  18. Blood pressure is represented by
  19. Septic shock is precipitated by
  20. Solution having a comparatively higher concentration of solutes is said to be
  21. Positively charged atom
  22. Tissue that lines the external body surfac
  23. The term pH is a measure of
  24. On average human body is what percent of water
  25. Which of the following terms describes a substance moving from higher concentration to lower concentration?
  26. Primary constituent of plasma is
  27. Substance that separate into electrically charged particles in water
  28. The process in which the size of the cell decreases from decreasing workload is
  29. Pulmonary edema is characteristic of what classification of hypoperfusion?
  30. The level of structural organization that consists of groups of tissues working together is an
  31. T lymphocytes are primarily responsible for
  32. The preferred resuscitation fluid for a pt with an ongoing gi bleed is?
  33. The most abundant cation in intracellular fluid is
  34. Shock can be best described as
  35. The shift of intravascular fluid to interstitial space is called
  36. Which of the following ph values indicates acidosis in the body
  37. The most abundant cation in extracellular fluid is
  38. A change in cell size shape and appearance caused by an external stressor is?
Volume 1 Chapter 1 to 9
  1. You are caring for an elderly female w/suspected vertebral fx and a known hx of spontaneous fx secondary to osteoporosis, She freq takes a hydrocodone containing preparation (vicoprofen) for pain. W/ her current injury you find it necessary to administer a greater than expected dosage of morphine. To what is this need for a higher dosage due
  2. Which of the following is not typically assoc w/type I diabetes
  3. In a patient experiencing an MI admin a med that reduces Afterload is beneficial because
  4. Tricyclic antidepressants achieve the therapeutic effect by
  5. The chief physiological effect of nerve gases such as VX and sarin are to
  6. Which of the following statements about antibiotics is NOT true?
  7. You are caring for a young mother that jnust gave birth to her first child. Despite taking appropriate measures, she continues to exhibit postpartum hemorrhage. In addition to crystalloid intravenous infusions what medication might you consider to manage this patient?
  8. Which of the following statements about warfarin (coumadin) is NOT true?
  9. What term best describes the effects a drug has on its target organs
  10. The paramedics chief concern with patients taking Viagra is
  11. An important distinction between analgesics and anesthesia is
  12. All laxatives are similar in that they
  13. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation that results in vasoconstriction and some bronchoconstriction is most likely affecting
  14. According to Frank Starling’s law, the administration of nitrogen will result in
  15. An important physiological distinction between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system is
  16. A drug with a wax like base that melts at body temperature allowing absorption into body tissue is called a
  17. Glucagon will affect blood glucose levels by
  18. Which of the following drug names are the same
  19. If a drug were to block the nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction, what symptomatic effect might this have on the patient?
  20. Which of the following is a generic name of a drug
  21. A beta 2 specific agonist causes which of the following physiologic responses
  22. Which of the following medications will have the greatest impact on reducing stroke volume?
  23. You are seeing a 69 year old female patient complaining of fatigue and nausea.  She has a history of heart failure, and two previous MI’s.  She reports having blurred vision with halos around objects.  Her vitals are blood pressure of 144 over 88, her pulse is 110 and irregular, her respirations are 16.  What should you suspect is causing her symptoms.
  24. You have been instructed to administer a protein binding medication to a 10 month old patient.  With this in mind, which of the following statements is true.
  25. Viagra achieves its therapeutic action in the treatment of erectile dysfunction by.
  26. Which of the following in NOT associated with the sympathetic nervous system?
  27. Oxytocin is frequently used in the prehospital setting to.
  28. An antimetic phenothiazine (compazine, phenergan) have which of the following undesirable side effects
  29. You respond to the aid of a 19 year old who is reported to have taken an overdose of a prescribed medication.  She exhibits combativeness and sever tremors.  Her blood pressure is 160 over 100, and her pulse is 132.  Sinus tach appears of her ECG.  Which of the following classifications of drugs is more likely to cause these symptoms?
  30. Which of the following pharmacokinetic processes would be least affected by the hypotensive state of a patient in Cardiogenic shock
  31. When administering glucagons to a patient, it is important to remember that.
  32. Shortly after treating your patient for a cardiac dysrhythmia, your patient complains of dry mouth, blurred vision, palpitations, and sensitivity to light.  Which drug might you have administered too much of?
  33. Which of the following is not associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?
  34. A college student in an effort to improve test scores, takes a drug, intelliboost, which enhances cortical function by increasing dopamine release in the brain.  It just so happens that he also is taking a cold remedy, sneezeless, which inhibits the chemical breakdown of dopamine at all receptor sites.  Which of the following best describes the drug interactions..
  35. Medications best suited for treating bronchoconstriction generally stimulate?
  36. methylpheridate (Ritalin), a drug used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), achieves its therapeutic action by
  37. Which of the following statements about bronchial asthma is true?
  38. If a patient were exhibiting pupilary constriction, hypersalivation, bronchial wheezing, and Bradycardia.  Which division of the ANS should you suspect is affected?
  39. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of oral contraceptives?
  40. Drugs with high abuse potential and no accepted medical benefits are classified as schedule
  41. You are carring for a 48 year old patient with acute onset pulmonary edema secondary to an acute MI.  He has crackles in both lung fields and wheezes in the bronchial regions. His blood pressure is 160/90, his pulse is 112, and his respirations are
  42. Which of the following meds is indicated first and why?
  43. One important reason meds are given via IV is such drugs
  44. All of the following result from elevated insulin levels in the blood EXCEPT.
  45. Which of the following is most likely to affect elimination of a medication
  46. If a newly developed drug is undergoing a double blind study in a large pt population, it is most likely in phase ___ of human studies.
  47. At the cellular level, the treatment of seizures is generally accomplished by:
  48. A prolonged deficiency of vitamin C may result in
  49. The narcotic nalbuphine (Nubain) not only binds to opiate receptor sites to provide analgesia, it prevents other opiods, such as morphine sulfate, from binding to these sites, lessening repiratory depression.  These characterisistics make the drug an:
  50. Pts experiencing the onset of signs and symptoms indicative of myocardial ischemia are sometimes encouraged to chew ASA.  ASA is beneficial because it:
  51. The study of the basic processes that determine the duration and intensity of a drug’s effect and how those drugs are absorbed, distributed, biotransformed, and elimated is called:
  52. Which of the following meds is appropriate for the routine treatment of type 2 diabetes: (unknown answer)
  53. You are caring for a 45 yr old male pt who was tending to his fruit orchard when he suddenly developed headache, dizziness, blurred vision, and tremors.  You note that he was inconteinent of urine, has papillary constriction, and is salivating excessively.  Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to manage this pt?
  54. When treating pts with suspected hypoglycemia, which of the following should be of greatest concern?
  55. Which of the the following is NOT one of the main sources of drugs?
  56. The acronym SLUDGE helps identify ________ affects on the ANS.
  57. Which of the following statements about insulin is NOT true?
  58. Naloxone is an opiod:
  59. Fibrionolytics achieve their therapeutication by:
  60. Which of the following statements about NTG is NOT true?
  61. While caring for a 60 yr old male with a suspected femur fx, your partner accidently administers the full vial of morphine sulfate (15mg) when only 4mg was ordered.  What adverse effects are likely to occur in this pt?
  62. A drug or other substance that blocks the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is called
  63. ________ is the preferred antihypertensive for the management of pregnancy induced hypertension.
  64. Because they can thicken bronchial secretions, you should not use ______ in patients with asthma.
  65. An example of an anticholingeric drug used in the treatment of asthma is
  66. The drug name that is derived from its chemical composition is referred to as its
  67. Drug legislation was instituted in 1906 by the
  68. The six rights of medication administration include the right:
  69. Which of the following routes is the least appropriate for medication administration in the prehospital setting?
  70. Drugs manufactured in gelatin containers are called
  71. A drugs pharmacodynamics involve its ability to cause the expected response, or:
  72. A type of anesthesia that combines decreased sensation of pain with amnesia, while the patient remains conscious, is a (an)
  73. ________ agents oppose the parasympathetic nervous system
  74. In antidysrhythmic classification, class 1A drugs include all of the following except:
  75. Loop diuretics achieve their therapeutic effects by:
  76. ______ are medications released from mast cells upon contact with allergens.
PAR 100 Volume 1 Chapter 10
  1. Having a pt swallow a tablet with a drink of water is an example of?
  2. Which of the following routes will medication have the quickest onset of action?
  3. Administration of a medication to the right eye would be documented medically as administration to which of the following?
  4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of pulmonary drug administration via nebulizer or metered dose inhaler?
  5. Into which of the following containers would it be necessary to inject a volume of air equal to the intended volume of medication before withdrawing the medication with a needle and syringe?
  6. Administration of medication into the dorsal gluteal must be injected into which quadrant of the muscle?
  7. When preparing for venipuncture, a constricting band should be placed tight enough to restrict ________ flow and not left in place for more than ________ minutes.
  8. Which of the following is a disadvantage to intravascular volume replacement with isotonic crystalloid solutions?
  9. Using microdrip tubing, how many drops of fluid equals 1ml?
  10. Which of the following pts, assuming each is in critical need of an IV and that you have made multiple unsuccessful attempts to start an IV, would be a candidate for IO therapy?
  11. Which of the following is an advantage of sublingual drug administration?
  12. Which of the following solutions is appropriate for the pt needing vascular volume replacement in the prehospital setting?
  13. A plastic or glass container with a self-sealing rubber top is known as a(n):
  14. Which of the following is considered a site of central venous access?
  15. Just as you are arriving at the emergency department bay, your pt on whom you started an IV at the scene, complains of sudden chills, back pain, and nausea. The pt appears flushed, and his skin is hot and moist to the touch.  Which of the following most likely accounts for your pt’s presentation?
  16. Which of the following veins is NOT a site of peripheral venous access?
  17. Which of the following is the appropriate method for preparing a site for venipuncture or injection?
  18. Which of the following is NOT a Percutaneous route of medication administration?
  19. Which of the following is NOT a pulmonary route of medication administration?
  20. You have 2mg of Naloxone in 10ml solution. What is the mg/ml concentration of the drug?
  21. Which of the following is appropriate for a subcutaneous injection of medication?
  22. Which of the following is a parenteral route of drug administration?
  23. Which of the following intravenous solutions would remain in the vascular system the longest
  24. Shortly after starting an IV on your pt, you note that the IV is not dripping. You have removed the constricting band, and all the clamps on the tubing are open.  You note that there is minor swelling around the venipuncture site.  There is no discoloration of the site, but it is firm and cool to the touch.  Which of the following most likely accounts for your findings?
  25. The maximum volume of medication to be delivered into the deltoid muscle is _____ml.
Volume 1 Chapter 11 & 12
  1. Which of the following serves as a guideline for the expected weight of a 4- to 6 month old child?
  2. Public distance refers to a space of                              feet between people.
  3. School – age children usually develop all of the following except:
  4. The normal heart of a toddler ranges from                  to                     beats per minute
  5. Preconventional reasoning is characterized by an orientation toward:
  6. Echoing a patient’s message to the patient using your own words is a technique known as:
  7. An intimate zone refers to a space of                          feet between people.
  8. When palpating the head of a 12-month- old infant, it would be normal to palpate the                 Fontanelle.
  9. You have overheard a tech in the emergency department talking with a patient who has pancreatic cancer.  The tech said, “Don’t worry, everything will be alright.” This is an example of:
  10. Enroute to the hospital, your partner says, “You know, I haven’t had a date since my spouse died 6 years ago. Why don’t you take down my phone number and call me?”  Which of the following is an appropriate response?
  11. which may result in a failure of communication between a paramedic and a patient?
  12. When interviewing patients from cultures other than your own, it is difficult for us to avoid interpreting the situation from the viewpoint of our culture.  This is known as:
  13. “Please tell me about your abdominal pain” is an example of a(n)                  question.
  14. Infants and children learn by building on what they have already been learned, a technique known as:
  15. Upon questioning your patient about whether he has been feeling any particular stress lately, he asks, “Do you think I’ll have to wait very long in the emergency department?” This is most illustrative of:
  16. Which of the following fluids helps the newborn infant’s lungs remain open by reducing surface tension?
  17. Which of the following questions would provide the best quality and quantity of relevant information?
  18. An infant’s respiratory rate generally is to fast to sustain adequate tidal volume when the rate is over                    breaths per minute.
  19. Which of the following statements about the physiological changes associated with aging is true?
  20. When taking a history, which of the following should typically drive the evolution of the questions of a patient after the first question?
  21. The normal birth weight of a full term born infant is                          kg.
  22. Which of the following the moro reflex in the infant.
  23. ________ questions are used to guide the pt`s answers
  24. which of the following nonverbal behaviors likely to help you establish trust and rapport with a pt?
  25. infants should typically be able to sit up in a high chair and make one syllable sounds by the age of________months?
  26. a child hearing reaches maturity at?
  27. which of the following guidelines applies when interviewing an adolescent pt?
  28. The highest levels of job stress occur in the _______years
  29. which of the following best desribes authoritarin parents
  30. a mojor concern of psychosocial developent for many adults in middle adulthood is?
  31. by the age of 80,cardiac vessal elasticity has decreased by approximately__________percent
  32. to which of the following conditions are infants especially susceptible
  33. a newborn typically sleeps____________hours in a 24 period
  34. a 5 year old child is introduced to you as Robert smith. The proper way for you to address him as
  35. when in a situation requiring an interpreter, it is important to
  36. which of the following responses illustrates the feedback techique of facilation
  37. You are called to a scene at which a pedestrian has fallen on the sidewalk. When you arrive , the man is sitting up and appears alert and responsive. However, as you attempt to start your interview in your normal manner, you note that he is reluctant to speak with you. How should you next proceed?
  38. Social distance refers to a space of _______________feet between people
  39. ou are caring for a sick 5 year old child in the emergency dept. the ed physician has orered some intravenous medication to stop the child from vomiting. Which of the following is the best way to appoarch the child with the issue of starting an  iv?
  40. Your partner has just asked mrs jones, why did`nt you call your physician`s office for a prescription refill instead of calling 911, this illustrates
Volume 1 Chapter 13
  1. The tip of a curved laryngoscope blade is placed correctly:
  2. A musical squeaking, or whistling sound that may be heard on inspiration or expiration while auscultating lung fields is known as:
  3. The respiratory rate may be greater than normal in:
  4. When intubating an adult pt, the onset of bradycardia is most likely due to:
  5. A high pitched inspiratory noise caused by a partial upper airway obstruction is called:
  6. An adult pt who has been intubated due to respiratory arrest should be ventilated _____ times per minute?
  7. The hypoxic drive is stimulated by:
  8. Of the normal tidal volume for the average 70 kg adult, what amount of air (in ml) is not available for gas exchange?
  9. At the end of exhalation, the intrathoracic pressure is:
  10. With which of the following conditions should you NOT attempt endotracheal intubation of the pt unless airway failure is imminent
  11. Which of the following is the correct order of events after an ET tube has been properly inserted?
  12. Moderate hypoxia is indicated with a pulse ox reading of?
  13. A fine, bubbling sound heard on inspiration and associated with fluid in the alveoli and terminal bronchioles is called:
  14. Which of the following increases the risk of a FBAO?
  15. The normal partial pressure of O2 is _____ mmHg.
  16. Physiologically the term respiration refers to the:
  17. Which of the following interferes with ventilation in the presence of a flail segment?
  18. Which of the following is a disadvantage of pulse oximetry?
  19. The bifurcation of the trachea is called the:
  20. When using the end tidal carbon dioxide detector, the absence of carbon dioxide in exhaled air after six breaths indicates the endotracheal tube has been placed:
  21. When a portion of the lung is unavailable for gas exchange, yet pulmonary circulation continues in that area of the lung, a condition known as ________ results.
  22. You should be prepared to immediately intubate any pt with respiratory distress who is exhibiting:
  23. Which of the following is not a structure of the upper airway
  24. In which of the following situation would you expect end tidal carbon dioxide levels to be very low despite a patient airway?
  25. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for hypoxemia in the pt with a pulmonary embolism?
  26. Without adequate airway maintenance and ventilation, the pt can succumb to brain injury or death in how many minutes?
  27. When swallowing, the structure that occludes the tracheal opening to prevent aspiration of foods and liquids is the:
  28. Aspiration of vomit into the lungs may result in:
  29. During a respiratory assessment, the absence of breath sounds may indicate a:
  30. The tip of the ET tube for the pediatric pt should be inserted _____ cm below the vocal cords
  31. Which of the following statements about manual airways in true:
  32. Progressively deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower breathing is called:
  33. In which of the following situations should you suspect pulmonary shunting?
  34. The reading obtained by the use of a pulse oximeter reflects the:


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