NURS 6512N Final Exam 4 – Question and Answers

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NURS 6512N Final Exam 4 – Week 11

  1. During chest assessment, you note the patient’s voice quality while auscultating the lung fields. The voice sound is intensified, there is a nasal quality to the voice, and the e’s sound like a s. This sound is indicative of:
  2. As Mr. B. enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B.’s pattern as:
  3. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce:
  4. Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of:
  5. Which one of the following techniques is used to detect a torn meniscus?
  6. Ulnar deviation and boutonniere deformities are characteristic of:
  7. A pulsation that is diminished to the point of being barely palpable would be graded as:
  8. In the most effective percussion technique of the posterior lung fields, the patient cooperates by:
  9. When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when:
  10. While collecting personal and social history data from a woman complaining of breast discomfort, you should question her regarding:
  11. Postural hypotension is defined as a _____ when the patient stands, compared with sitting or supine readings.
  12. You are examining a patient in the emergency department who has recently sustained head trauma. In order to initially assess this patient’s neurologic status, you would:
  13. Temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:
  14. A parent is advised to restrict contact or collision sports participation for their child. An example of a sport in which this child could participate is:
  15. Cranial nerve XII may be assessed in an infant by:
  16. The reliability of health-related findings and observations is the responsibility of the:
  17. Normal changes of the aging brain include:
  18. The adnexa of the uterus are composed of the:
  19. For purposes of examination and communication of physical findings, the breast is divided into:
  20. A patient in the deepest coma would be scored a _____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale.
  21. A patient you are seeing in the emergency department for chest pain is suspected of having a myocardial infarction. During the health history interview of his family history, he relates that his father had died of “heart trouble.” The most important follow-up question you should pose is which of the following?
  22. Nerves that arise from the brain rather than the spinal cord are called:
  23. While examining a 30-year-old woman, you note that one breast is slightly larger than the other. In response to this finding, you should:
  24. In the adult, the apical impulse should be most visible when the patient is in what position?
  25. A 23-year-old white woman has come to the clinic because she has missed two menstrual periods. She states that her breasts have enlarged and that her nipples have turned a darker color. Your further response to this finding is to:
  26. Tarry black stool should make you suspect:
  27. To assess spinal levels L2, L3, and L4, which deep tendon reflex should be tested?
  28. You are conducting an examination of Mr. Curtis’s heart and blood vessels and auscultate a grade III murmur. The intensity of this murmur is:
  29. To assess a cremasteric reflex, the examiner strokes the:
  30. An examiner has rotated a brush several times into the cervical os. The brush was withdrawn and stroked lightly on a glass slide. The slide was sprayed with fixative. Which type of specimen requires this technique for collection?
  31. Functional assessment is most important during the examination of a(n):
  32. Part of the screening orthopedic component of the examination includes evaluating the person while he or she is:
  33. To spread the breast tissue evenly over the chest wall, you should ask the woman to lie supine with:
  34. When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed?
  35. If a patient cannot shrug the shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation?
  36. One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is:
  37. You are examining Mr. S., a 79-year-old diabetic man complaining of claudication. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with the diagnosis of arterial occlusion?
  38. The Mini-Mental State Examination should be administered for the patient who:
  39. If pitting edema is unilateral, you would suspect occlusion of a:
  40. The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3-year-old child before a physical examination is to:
  41. Nancy Walker is a 16-year-old girl who presents to the clinic with complaints of severe, acute chest pain. Her mother reports that Nancy, apart from occasional colds, Nancy is not prone to respiratory problems. What potential risk factor is most important to assess with regards to Nancy’s current problem?
  42. Your patient’s chief complaint is repeated pencil-like stools. Further examination should include:
  43. To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask patients to:
  44. The spread of the impulse through the ventricles (ventricular depolarization) is depicted on the ECG as the:
  45. Kawasaki disease is suspected when assessments of a child reveal:
  46. Which one of the following is a proper technique for use of a speculum during a vaginal examination?
  47. You are interviewing a 20-year-old patient with a new-onset psychotic disorder. The patient is apathetic and has disturbed thoughts and language patterns. The nurse recognizes this behavior pattern as consistent with a diagnosis of:
  48. Inspection of the scrotum should reveal:
  49. The finger-to-nose test allows assessment of:
  50. Bimanual examination of the uterus includes:
  51. You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should:
  52. The difference in blood pressure readings between the right and the left arms is considered normal up to _____ mm Hg.
  53. When you attempt to move a 10-month-old child from his mother’s lap to the examination table, he screams loudly. Your best action is to:
  54. It is especially important to test for ankle clonus if:
  55. A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is:
  56. The checkout station for preparticipation physical evaluation (PPE) is critical because at this point:
  57. When palpating breast tissue, the examiner should use the _____ at each site.
  58. Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing?
  59. Throughout the history and physical examination, the clinician should:
  60. You are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q. has a positive:
  61. Anterior cruciate ligament integrity is assessed via the _____ test.
  62. Breath odors may clue the examiner to certain underlying metabolic conditions. The odor of ammonia on the breath may signify:
  63. The Mini-Mental State Examination:
  64. A common finding in markedly obese and pregnant women is:
  65. The Denver II is a tool used to determine:
  66. The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient:
  67. A red, hot swollen joint in a 40-year-old man should lead you to suspect:
  68. Examination of the patient in the lithotomy, or knee-chest, position includes:
  69. Assessing orientation to person, place, and time helps determine:
  70. When the Goodenough-Harris Drawing Test is administered to a child, the evaluator principally observes the:
  71. A 12-year-old boy relates that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful upon palpation. The left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass does transilluminate with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with:
  72. The rectal past medical history of all patients should include inquiry about:
  73. The goals of preparticipation sports evaluation include:
  74. An idiopathic spasm of arterioles in the digits is termed:
  75. A cervical polyp usually appears as a:
  76. Your older clinic patient is being seen today as a follow-up for a 2-day history of pneumonia. The patient continues to have a productive cough, shortness of breath, and lethargy and has been spending most of the day lying in bed. You should begin the chest examination by:
  77. Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible?
  78. Recent unilateral inversion of a previously everted nipple suggests:
  79. Electrical activity recorded by the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that denotes the spread of the stimulus through the atria is the:
  80. An apical PMI palpated beyond the left fifth intercostal space may indicate:
  81. The examiner percusses for diaphragmatic excursion along the:
  82. Which of the following statements is true regarding the examination of peripheral arteries?
  83. You are conducting a clinical breast examination for your 30-year-old patient. Her breasts are symmetrical with bilateral, multiple tender masses that are freely moveable with well-defined borders. You recognize that these symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with:
  84. The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate:
  85. When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing:
  86. The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with:
  87. Which cranial nerves are usually evaluated during the examination of the eyes?
  88. While interviewing a 70-year-old female clinic patient, she tells you that she takes ginkgo biloba and St. John’s wort. You make a short note to check for results of the:
  89. When conducting a geriatric assessment, basic activities of daily living (ADLs) include:
  90. Palpation of a normal prostate in an older adult is likely to feel:
  91. Breath sounds normally heard over the trachea are called:
  92. When assessing a 17-year-old for nuchal rigidity, you gently raise his head off the examination table. He involuntarily flexes his hips and knees. To confirm your suspicions associated with this positive test, you would also perform a test for the _____ sign.
  93. During a routine prenatal visit, Ms. T. was noted as having dependent edema, varicosities of the legs, and hemorrhoids. She expressed concern about these symptoms. You explain to Ms. T. that her enlarged uterus is compressing her pelvic veins and her inferior vena cava. You would further explain that these findings:
  94. Facial muscle or tongue weakness may result in:
  95. A positive straight leg raise test usually indicates:
  96. At your first meeting with a patient, it is usually best to say:
  97. The foramen ovale should close:
  98. If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a:
  99. A grade IV mitral regurgitation murmur would:
  100. Palpation of epitrochlear nodes is part of the:

Sunday, February 9, 2020 2:15:05 PM EST

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